a friend of mine said she believes no one is allowed to stop or criticise a man who beats his wife, she cannot defend herself and no one may defend her. she was also very insistent this was not about the mild discipline, but also applies violent beating - referencing a hadith saying no man shall be asked why he beat his wife. to what extent is she correct or not? is there any punishment or fine for a man who aggressively beats his wife? is it sinful? what is the meaning of the hadith
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (
) is His Slave and Messenger.
The ḥadīth mentioned in the question has been considered weak by some scholars, such as Shaykh Aḥmad Shākir and Al-Albānī, may Allah hve mercy upon them.
Even if we were to assume that it is authentic – though this assumption is unlikely – its meaning would be that a man is not questioned about why he struck his wife when there exists a legitimate reason for doing so. Such reasons may include the wife’s disobedience to her husband, arrogance toward him, or failure to fulfill the obligations that Allah has placed upon her, and similar matters.
However, this is subject to the condition that the husband follows the gradual process prescribed in the Quran, as Allah the Exalted Says (what means): {As for those women from whom you fear rebellion (nushūz), first advise them; then abandon them in their beds; and finally strike them. But if they obey you, then seek no means against them} [Quran 4:34]
Thus, resorting to striking is only permissible after the husband has despaired of reforming her through other means, and only if there is benefit and correction in doing so. The husband must also observe the Islamic conditions and limits regarding such discipline. Therefore, he must not strike the face, break bones, cause disfigurement, or damage any limb or remove a faculty such as eyesight or similar.
Another possible interpretation of the prohibition against asking a husband about the reason for striking his wife is that questioning him might lead to the disclosure of a private marital matter, rather than the prohibition relating to the act of striking itself.
In any case, if a husband transgresses and wrongs his wife by striking her without right, then he must be prevented from doing so. The wife also has the right to defend herself and prevent him from attacking her.
From this explanation, it becomes clear that your friend is mistaken in what she told you.
Allah Knows best
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